31) When using PFMEA, the suggested value for schedule changes not impacting major milestones is A) 5. B) 4. C) 3. D) 10. 32) A measure used when assessing risk in a project equal to the product of likelihood, impact and detection of risk events best defines A) risk detection percentage. B) risk detection score. C) risk assessment score. D) risk priority number. 33) The likelihood that an event will occur times the impact of that occurrence best defines A) risk score. B) risk percentage. C) threat level. D) weakness assessment measure. 34) Quantitative risk assessment methods include A) quantitative risk analysis. B) data gathering and representation techniques. C) expert judgment. D) all of the above. 35) A computerized mathematical technique that furnishes the decision maker with a range of possible outcomes and the probabilities of occurrence for any choice of action best defines A) Monte Carlo simulation. B) SWOT analysis. C) Six Sigma. D) DMAIC. 36) Options and actions that mitigate risks and reduce project threats best defines A) risk awareness. B) risk responses. C) risk triggers. D) risk activation. 37) Risks are managed by A) transferring risk. B) avoiding risk. C) accepting risk. D) all of the above. 38) Risks associated with scope can be reduced by each of the following except A) setting deadlines and making sure to achieve those deadlines. B) defining the needs of each task clearly. C) defining the deliverables clearly. D) anticipating defects and problems during integration. 39) Risks associated with costs can be reduced by each of the following except A) considering many design alternatives before choosing the design. B) creating a project schedule and striving to adhere to it. C) identifying and monitoring the key cost drivers. D) identifying critical tasks and their interdependencies. 40)Â A systematic approach to identify what can go wrong in a project and be prepared with plans, strategies, and approaches to mitigate and manage risks best defines A) SWOT analysis. B) contingency planning. C) risk assessment. D) risk avoidance. 41) A process to manage risks in a project is A) risk monitoring and control. B) SWOT analysis. C) configuration management plan. D) TMAP. 42) Indications or warning signs that a risk has occurred or is about to occur best defines A) risk alerts. B) monitor alerts. C) project triggers. D) risk triggers. 43) A log of identified risks along with its owners, risk scores, RPNs, risk responses, triggers, residual and secondary risks, and contingency plans for cost and schedule best defines A) risk register. B) risk charter. C) risk matrix. D) contingency plan. 44) The difference between the planned and the actual budget best defines A) trend. B) variance. C) average. D) mode. 45) A comparison of the contingency reserves of schedule, resources, and budget at a particular time during the progress of a project with the original schedule, resources, and budget to determine if there are enough reserves in schedule, resources, or budget best defines A) total operating cost. B) feasibility study. C) reserve analysis. D) risk analysis.